Jack the Ripper
Mary Pearcey
Another strange theory around Jack the Ripper case was that the killer might have been a woman... Sounds doubtful, but it does have some points to be considered. The woman that was pointed out as potential killer was Mary Pearcey, who was in 1890 convicted of murdering her lover’s wife. She invited her victim, Phoebe Hogg, to her house and then assaulted her and her child.
Authors that suggest that Mary Pearcey could have been Jack the Ripper suggest that Pearcey cut the throat of her victim in similar way Jack the Ripper did in 1888. Also if Jack the Ripper would be a woman this would explain why even during the peak of terror caused by the killings women didn’t hesitate to go with unknown person to secluded spot.
Unfortunately both arguments are feeble - the murder of Phoebe Hogg was crime of passion committed in Mary Pearcey’s home, not the cold blooded murder of complete stranger in dark alley. Also the victims of Jack the Ripper were prostitutes looking for clients, they were motivated by poverty, so they were not in position to just give up prostitution for some time because there was a danger on the streets. They constantly needed money and they had to take chances to survive - this makes the theory that they would go off the streets with a woman even more unlikely. Plus some of them, when they were last seen, were going away with clients.
The idea that Jack the Ripper might have been a woman would make sense, but with some assumptions. For example she would have to pretend to be a man (so the women would see client in her) or have other reason why would prostitute driven by lack of money would risk losing the income to go with her. The killer was most likely driven by sexual motives which makes a woman unlikely candidate. And the last point to make is that the statistics are hugely against the idea - there were only few female serial killers and hundreds of male.
Do you have what it takes to solve a case like this?
Jack the Ripper comments
@Logic
I don't know where did you get the idea that in Polish word "żyd" is pronounces anything like "juwet", it isn't - the first letter (ż) is pronounced like the last syllable of the word "prestige"
Polish Guy (15-08-2018 21:53:22)
Has anyone ever considered that he was a calculating man and changed his MO because the victims in his later killings could have been traced back to him more easily, which is how he was caught, and that he slashed the Whitechapel victims because he could get away with it. His personality and past behaviors toward his wife (and other women) would suggest that he was very capable of committing the crimes done by Jack the Ripper. It is also to my understanding that he had monetary motives with the later victims, so he had to make the deaths look natural for those purposes in addition to making sure the murders couldn't be traced back to him if the looked like natural illnesses. Also, let's say for arguments sake that the Goulston street graffiti was actually written by the Ripper. The message itself is largely indecipherable to anyone other than the killer. But, the most credible reports indicated that Jews was spelled "Juwes". This is interesting because if you listen to how the word Jews is pronounced by a person saying the word for Jews in Polish, you will see that it could be that the writing on the wall was just a poor English transliteration from the Polish word for Jews. In Polish the word for Jew is "zyd", but it's pronounced similar to "juwet" with the W having the V sound. They probably had the guy, just a classic case of not enough evidence.
Logic (15-08-2018 07:09:16)
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